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F5 101 exam is a vendor-neutral certification, which means that it is not tied to any specific technology or product. This makes the certification highly valuable in the industry, as it demonstrates that the candidate has a broad understanding of application delivery concepts that can be applied to a variety of different technologies and products. Application Delivery Fundamentals Exam certification is recognized by many leading companies in the industry, and is often a requirement for employment in application delivery roles.
NEW QUESTION # 22
CORRECT TEXT
Place the following items in the order that the BIG-IP device uses when processing a packet.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 23
Even though F5 is an application delivery controller, it can also effectively mitigate attacks directed at the network layer.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 24
In the next few years, 75% of new storage capacity will shift to unstructured data (also known as file data).
Which two of the following are examples of unstructured data? (Choose two.)
- A. CAD drawings
- B. Location data in a GIS (geographic information system)
- C. Customer records and product records in a CRM (customer relationship management) database
- D. Microsoft Office and PDF documents
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 25
Assuming there are open connections through an active system's virtual servers and a failover occurs, by default, what happens to the connections.
- A. When persistence mirroring is enabled, open connections are maintained even if a failover occurs.
- B. All open connections are maintained.
- C. All open connections are lost, but new connections are initiated by the newly active BIG-IP, resulting in minimal client downtime.
- D. Longlived connections such as Telnet and FTP are maintained, but shortlived connections such as HTTP are lost.
- E. All open connections are lost.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 26
When using a single BIG-IP with APM, an organization can support up to 60,000 concurrent remote access users.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 27
All members of a pool must share the same service port?
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 28
Without decrypting, what portion of an HTTPS session is visible with a packet capture?
- A. HTTP Request Headers
- B. Source IP Address
- C. HTTP Response Headers
- D. Cookies
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of these statements about a stream profile is false?
- A. It will not inspect HTTP headers when an HTTP profile is present.
- B. It is not recommended for telnet traffic.
- C. It applies to both inbound and outbound traffic.
- D. It is applied to an HTTP class profile.
- E. It can replace one data string for another for all traffic going through a virtual server.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 30
What are three functions commonly performed by HTTP cookies? (Choose three)
- A. maintain session state
- B. hold User preferences
- C. Track users' browsing activities
- D. execute server side scripts
- E. execute client side scripts
Answer: A,B,C
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which two processes are involved when BIG-IP systems issue traps? (Choose two.)
- A. smtpd
- B. syslog-ng
- C. alertd
- D. bigd
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which three of the following are benefits of adding WebAccelerator to the network infrastructure?
- A. It analyzes Web content, and caches and compresses it accordingly
- B. It adds a layer, security to a Web site
- C. It improves the performance , large object file transfers
- D. It reduces the need to purchase additional bandwidth
- E. It speeds up a secure Web site
Answer: A,D,E
NEW QUESTION # 33
WebAccelerator uses three tiers to improve performance. What are the three tiers? (Choose three.)
- A. Web server offload
- B. Network offload
- C. Protocol offload
- D. Application offload
- E. Bandwidth offload
- F. Client offload
Answer: A,B,D
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which statement accurately describes the difference between two load balancing modes specified as
"member" and "node"?
- A. When the load balancing choice references "node", the addresses' parameters are used to make the load balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.
- B. There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
- C. When the load balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
- D. Load balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are defined for the
"any" port.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 35
A BIG-IP has the following objects configured: A SNAT pool with 2 members:
- 150.10.33.33 and 10.10.1.33
- A loadbalancing pool with 5 members: 10.10.1.110.10.1.5:80
- The BIG-IP has two self-IP addresses: 150.10.10.10 and 10.10.1.10
A virtual server at 150.10.30.30:80 that is associated with both the SNAT pool and the loadbalancing pool. If a client at IP address 200.10.10.10 initiates a connection to the virtual server, what will the source IP address be in the packets sent to the chosen pool member?
- A. 150.10.33.33
- B. 10.10.1.10
- C. 10.10.1.33
- D. 200.10.10.10
- E. 150.10.30.30
- F. It could be any of the addresses of the members of the loadbalancing pool.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 36
Using WOM for vMotion transfers across the WAN prevents VMware users from experiencing interruptions.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 37
Application templates save the time it typically takes to create nodes, pools, pool members, virtual servers, and monitors.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 38
An administrator is trying to debug why the 10.0.10.0/24 network is inaccessible from a certain server. The server is able to access the internet Successfully.
The administrator inspects the routing table and ARP table on the affected server.
Given the terminal output shown, what could be causing this issue?
- A. The default route (0. 0. 0. 0/0) is misconfigured
- B. The static route for 10. 0.10.0/24 is misconfigured
- C. The default gateway is not sending ARP responses
- D. The local server is unable to receive ARP responses
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 39
There are many user roles configurable on the BIG-IP ASM System. Which of the following user roles have access to make changes to ASM policies? (Choose 3)
- A. Guest
- B. Web Application Security Editor
- C. Operator
- D. Web Application Security Administrator
- E. Administrator
Answer: B,D,E
NEW QUESTION # 40
The Device Inventory option in Enterprise Manager can replace an organization's static Excel spreadsheet containing similar data.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 41
In a fully proxy architecture, what is considered the client in the server-side communications
- A. the client workstation
- B. the switch
- C. the ADC
- D. the server
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
An administrator is having a connectivity issue with a server in the same network. Upon checking with the command arp -a on a Windows machine, the two outputs are taken on a 1 minute interval "hat is likely causing this issue?
- A. Interface down
- B. MAC address conflict
- C. No route available
- D. IP address conflict
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 43
The Protected Workspace client-side action provides more client-side security than the Cache and Session Control action.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 44
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