ISTQB CTAL_TM_001 Dumps Updated Jan 22, 2026 WIith 232 Questions
View All CTAL_TM_001 Actual Free Exam Questions Jan 22, 2026 Updated
NEW QUESTION # 55
Your manager has decided that your team of manual testers should all become test automation engineers Your team is much stronger in analysis than In technical testing so you are concerned about their ability to adapt. What tool capabilities could help with this transition?
- A. Low license costs
- B. High usability with Al-assisted object capture
- C. Remote storage of the test automation scripts
- D. Good reporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Challenges for Manual Testers Transitioning to Automation:
Manual testers often lack strong technical skills required for scripting. Tools with high usability and AI-assisted features simplify script creation and reduce the technical expertise needed.
Evaluation of Options:
A (Low license costs) is unrelated to aiding testers' technical capabilities.
B (Remote storage) is beneficial but does not address skill gaps.
C (High usability with AI-assisted object capture) directly helps by simplifying automation tasks.
D (Good reporting) is valuable but not relevant to skill transition.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
This matches tool evaluation criteria outlined in the ISTQB syllabus under "Test Tools" (TM-1.6.1).
NEW QUESTION # 56
What occurs In the retrospective closing?
- A. The strengths and opportunities for improvement in the retrospectives are discussed
- B. A brainstorming session is held to discuss the solutions to the root causes of the most significant issues
- C. The data collection methods are reviewed
- D. Everyone shakes hands
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Purpose of Retrospectives:
* Retrospectives are team meetings aimed at reflecting on the work process to identify what went well (strengths) and areas that can be improved (opportunities).
* This aligns with continuous process improvement practices.
* Evaluation of Options:
* A(Everyone shakes hands) is trivial and not a core activity.
* B(Reviewing data collection methods) may be part of broader discussions but is not the primary focus.
* Cis correct because it directly reflects retrospective goals.
* D(Brainstorming solutions) typically occurs in follow-up sessions, not during the retrospective itself.
References and Syllabus Alignment:
* Retrospective practices are emphasized in "Improving the Test Process" (TM-1.5.4) in the syllabus.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following would be the TWO most appropriate examples of entry criteria documented in the system integration test plan? 2 credits
- A. The availability of the latest version of the capture-replay tool (for testing the interface with the newly developed test management tool).
- B. The percentage of acceptance test procedures scheduled for execution.
- C. The sign-off of a performance test software release note (test item transmittal report) by both development and testing showing that system performance meets the specified acceptance criteria.
- D. The percentage of decision coverage achieved during unit testing.
- E. The percentage of requirements coverage achieved during system integration test.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 58
It is the last day of an iteration and one of the teams is clearly not going to deliver all of the work that it committed to at the beginning of the iteration. The scrum master has asked you for ideas about how to perform the afternoon's retrospective in order to learn the appropriate lessons.
You have started the retrospective meeting by presenting this as its main goal. Which next two steps will be MOST effective?
- A. Identify the work items that exceeded their estimates and by how much, then identify the team member (s) who most influenced these estimates
- B. Decide on ways to make these estimates more accurate, then decide on an improvement plan and responsibilities in order to implement them
- C. Identify the work items that exceeded their estimates and by how much, then consider why these estimates were inaccurate
- D. Identify the work items that exceeded their estimates and by how much, then consider ways to make these estimates more accurate
Answer: C
Explanation:
Retrospectives aim toidentify root causesand continuous improvement actions. The most effective approach is toexamine why estimates were inaccurate, not just which ones were off. Blame (as in option C) is discouraged in Agile values.
ISTQB Agile testing principles highlight the role ofretrospectives in enabling self-improvement and lessons learned, emphasizingroot cause analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Refer to SCENARIO 3
You are the Test Manager for a software house called "MakeMyApp" that specialise in mobile phone applications, agile techniques are used for all software development projects.
A new project is underway to develop enhancements to a 'photo sharing' application, known as
'PictureFriend'. There are two types of user account available -Premium Users and Guest Users. Guest users only have limited functionality available. The enhanced features to PictureFriend are:
* Feature 1: Guest Users can share photos with other Guest Users and Premium Users;
* Feature 2: Premium Users can edit pictures before posting to their account;
* Feature 3: Premium Users can create '3D-effect' photographs
The requirements for each feature will be broken down into a number of User Stories with acceptance criteria created for each of them. User Stories are planned and delivered in 2-week 'Sprints'. The project will have 3 sprints.
Which of the following are test planning activities that would be MOST appropriate for Sprint 1?
a) Analyse the risk for each of the user stories in sprint 1
b) Publish lest progress reports throughout the sprint
c) Arrange informal reviews of the user stories by the test team
d) Plan an automated system test suite for the user stories.
e) Specify system test conditions at a detailed level for all user stories Chose one of the following options:
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. c and e.
- B. a and c.
- C. a and d.
- D. b and c.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 60
You are responsible for porting a performance testing tool to a new operating system. You are at what stage in the tool's lifecycle?
- A. Evolution
- B. Retirement
- C. Support and Maintenance
- D. Acquisition
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the tool lifecycle model, the evolution stage is when the tool is adapted to new requirements or environments, such as a new operating system. This stage involves modifying the tool to meet the changing needs of the users and the system. The evolution stage is followed by the retirement stage, when the tool is no longer used or supported. Tool Lifecycle ModelSoftware Testing Tools References:
* Work with performance and monitoring tools in finance and operations apps
* Software Testing Tools: A Comprehensive Guide
NEW QUESTION # 61
Refer to SCENARIO 2 - You are the test manager for Project 3 and have performed a skills assessment of your Safe as Houses' test team. You must now decide what training or skills development is required.
The matrix shows the skill level (5 being highest, 1 lowest) for each team member. Which two of the above skills need the closest attention for potential training or development on this project?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Acceptance testing and Knowledge of Light Imagery software.
- B. Integration testing and Knowledge of Light Imagery software.
- C. Performance testing & Test planning for incremental life-cycles.
- D. Knowledge of Light Imagery software and Test control.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 62
As test manager, you need to determine if there are likely to be new security risks arising from proposed changes to an in-house purchasing application. You invite a security testing consultant, who is external to the organisation, to assess the changes and provide you with their written report of perceived security risks.
Which risk identification technique are you using?
- A. Independent assessment
- B. Brainstorming
- C. Risk workshop
- D. Expert interview
Answer: A
Explanation:
The method described is anindependent assessment, which refers to usingexternal expertsto review and provide objective analysis, especially useful for specific areas like security. This is consistent with directed test strategies in which guidance is sought from domain experts .
NEW QUESTION # 63
Your organization is considering using open-source tools. You have been told you need to be aware of the terms of the GNU general public license.
What is the basic concept of this license? [1]
- A. A small license fee must be paid to the supplier of the software.
- B. Anyone can use the software anytime for any reason.
- C. You are allowed to use the software internally, but it cannot be incorporated into any product for which you will receive a profit.
- D. If you're going to distribute the software, you need to do so with the same terms as were applied when you received the software.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The GNU General Public License (GPL) is a free, copyleft license that allows users to change and share all versions of a program. The basic concept of the GPL is that if you distribute the software, you must do so under the same license terms as when you received it. This ensures that the freedoms to use, study, share, and modify the software are preserved1.
References:
* GNU General Public License - Wikipedia1
* Licenses - GNU Project - Free Software Foundation2
* GNU General Public License - Techopedia3
* GNU General Public License - Simple English Wikipedia4
* GNU General Public License | GPLv3 explained | Snyk5
NEW QUESTION # 64
You have been asked to implement formal reviews at your company. From the list below, what are the correct characteristics of a formal review?
a. Entry and exit criteria have been defined.
b. Checklists created to be used by all reviewers.
c. Consistency with current project plan is checked.
d. Metrics on effectiveness will be gathered.
e. The review will be moderated by a lead auditor.
- A. b, c and e.
- B. c, d and e.
- C. a, b and c.
- D. a, b and d.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 65
Assuming that 'In progress' means that somebody is working on a fix and that 'Resolved' means that the fix passed the confirmation test; which option provides a defect workflow that flows in a sensible way from an initial state to a terminal state?
- A. New, Under Investigation, In progress, Re-test, Resolved, Closed, Deferred
- B. New, Under Investigation, Rejected, Re-test, Resolved, Closed
- C. In progress, Under Investigation, Deferred, Retest, Resolved, Closed
- D. New, under investigation, Deferred, In progress, Re-test, Resolved, Closed
Answer: D
Explanation:
A typical defect workflow should begin with a newly reported issue ("New"), proceed to investigation, allow for deferral if necessary, move to fixing ("In Progress"), re-testing, and finally confirmation of resolution and closure. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, valid states of a defect report include:New, Under Investigation, Deferred, In Progress, Re-Test, Resolved, Closed.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Refer to SCENARIO 2 It has been agreed that the following test planning documents will be produced;
* A single overarching document outlining the general testing methodology for the whole programme of work
* A subordinate test plan for each of the three projects
* A separate test plan for performance testing within each project
Which one of the following options BEST describes the type of test management document that will meet the programme requirements?
- A. Option 2.
- B. Option 1.
- C. Option 4.
- D. Option 3.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 67
Refer to SCENARIO 1
Week 4 of test execution has been completed and the following test report has been produced
Review this report against the organisational Test Strategy, what is the status of the Test Strategy objectives?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Test strategy objective 1 and 3 have been met. Test strategy objective 2 has NOT been met.
- B. Test strategy objective 1 and 2 have been met. Test strategy objective 3 has NOT been met.
- C. Test strategy objective 2 and 3 have been met. Test strategy objective 1 has NOT been met.
- D. Test strategy objective 1. 2 and 3 have been met
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following is an advantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level?
- A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps
- B. Saves time
- C. Improves maintainability and reduces ownership costs for the testware
- D. Can be used to leverage use cases for acceptance testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps. This is because test conditions are the items or events of a component or system that will be verified by one or more test cases. Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can help to identify test coverage gaps, which are the areas or aspects of the component or system that are not covered by the test conditions or test cases. By identifying test coverage gaps, the test team can ensure that the testing is complete and consistent with the test objectives and scope. Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 69
You have written a defect report and have just been notified that it is in the "returned" state.
Who should take action on this defect? [1]
- A. The tester who wrote the defect report
- B. The project manager who is responsible for the project
- C. The defect triage team
- D. The developer to whom the defect is assigned
Answer: A
Explanation:
The person who should take action on this defect is the tester who wrote the defect report. This is because a defect report in the "returned" state means that the defect has been rejected or sent back to the tester for further clarification or investigation. The tester who wrote the defect report should review the feedback from the developer, the project manager, or the defect triage team, and take the appropriate action, such as providing more information, modifying the defect report, or closing the defect. Defect Reporting - ISTQB not-for-profit association Reference: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Defect Reporting - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 70
You tend to be conservative in your project estimations because you know how many things can go wrong and extend the schedule. You manager is not happy with your estimates and thinks you are being too negative with your numbers and not trying hard enough Which estimation method should you use to provide your manager with a positive' number while still also providing the number you think is more realistic?
- A. Three-point estimation
- B. Extrapolation
- C. Wideband defphi
- D. Planning poker
Answer: A
Explanation:
Context Analysis:
The manager perceives conservative estimates as overly negative. The goal is to balance optimism with realism to satisfy both the team and the manager.
Three-point estimation provides a range of estimates: optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely, addressing the need for a positive yet realistic projection.
Evaluation of Options:
A . Wideband Delphi:
Involves group-based estimation using consensus techniques. While reliable, it does not explicitly offer optimistic vs. realistic estimates.
B . Planning Poker:
Often used in Agile projects, this technique involves relative estimation but does not inherently provide optimistic and pessimistic figures.
C . Three-point estimation:
Correct. Combines optimistic, pessimistic, and realistic estimates to calculate a weighted average. This allows presentation of both realistic and "positive" numbers to the manager.
D . Extrapolation:
Based on past data trends but does not offer a range of estimates or a way to address manager concerns directly.
Syllabus Alignment:
The ISTQB syllabus mentions estimation methods like three-point estimation as effective techniques for providing balanced and transparent project timelines (TM-2.2.1).
Reference:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus
NEW QUESTION # 71
What is the purpose of lest control?
- A. To project detect trends and outcomes
- B. To return the test environment to its starting state and data
- C. To take corrective actions required to meet the test objectives
- D. To monitor the testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Definition:
Test control involves monitoring and taking actions to align testing with objectives, addressing deviations in test progress or outcomes.
Evaluation of Options:
A . To monitor the testing:
Incorrect. Monitoring is part of the process but does not define the purpose of test control.
B . To return the test environment to its starting state and data:
Incorrect. This pertains to test environment setup or cleanup, not test control.
C . To project detect trends and outcomes:
Incorrect. Detecting trends is part of monitoring, not control.
D . To take corrective actions required to meet the test objectives:
Correct. Test control is proactive, focusing on corrective measures to ensure test objectives are met (Syllabus section TM-1.5.3).
Reference:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus
NEW QUESTION # 72
You are a new lest manager in an organization You have been asked to assess the defect process to determine if there are any efficiency improvements that could be made that would reduce the cost of quality You have started digging through the defect Information What information would be most helpful for this investigation?
- A. The phase in which a defect was introduced versus the phase in which it was found
- B. Areas of the software producing the most defects
- C. Defect priorities and seventies as related to time from reporting to closure
- D. Risk areas m which defects have been detected and the relationship between the risk rating of the software and the seventy of the defect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Key Data for Defect Process Improvement:
Analyzing when defects are introduced versus when they are detected is critical to identifying process inefficiencies.
This information helps pinpoint gaps in earlier phases, allowing the team to implement preventive measures and reduce overall costs.
Evaluation of Options:
A and B are useful but do not address the root cause of inefficiencies.
C (Risk areas and severity relationship) is helpful but secondary to understanding phase discrepancies.
D is correct as it provides the most actionable insights for process improvement.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
Defect lifecycle analysis is discussed under "Defect Management" (TM-2.3.1) in the ISTQB syllabus.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Your company specialises in offering travel insurance policies to the over 60 age bracket. It is starting a new project to modernise the design of its website, which is seen to be inferior to its competitors. The project will use a SCRUM software development methodology.
As senior test manager for your company, you have been asked to identify three test analysts to join the SCRUM development team. There are a number of testers currently not allocated to projects who would be available, all of them have been with the company for a number of years, although some have little or no experience in iterative development.
You must assess their current skillsets to determine whether any of them possess skills that would be of particular relevance for the new project. Which TWO of the following skills should you focus on in your assessment?
- A. Professional competence - coaching and mentoring others to understand SCRUM theory and good practice
- B. Professional competence - technical expertise to implement automated tests and performing exploratory testing
- C. Professional competence - having business domain expertise in travel insurance
- D. Methodological competence - the ability to analyse the test basis and deal with product risks
- E. Personal competence - a high level of self-management and discipline
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
In Agile environments, ISTQB emphasizes testers having technical expertise (e.g., test automation, exploratory testing) and personal skills like self-management and discipline. These qualities enable the tester to operate effectively in a collaborative, fast-paced Agile team.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Refer lo SCENARIO 2 - You are writing the Master Test Plan for Project 2 and must include a section documenting project risks that you believe could impact testing along with how, as Test Manager, you propose to manage each risk.
Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate entry for the Master Test Plan for RISK 4 "The user interface software for the sound systems will be delivered late into testing-?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Prepare the testers to work longer hours
- B. Accept the risk and develop a contingency plan
- C. Ask the stakeholders to accept the risk without mitigation, as code is often late
- D. Transfer the risk to Smart Alarms for them to propose mitigation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 75
You have been assigned t o a project that has a very tight schedule. In fact, given your first analysis you do not think the planned test execution can be completed within the schedule There is no time allowed for defect fixing or for repeating tests. Regression testing has been left out of the planning entirely There is no time to develop test automation. The team has agreed that this Is not the way to run a project, yet they are stuck with the current schedule Given this information what is the best way to proceed with the testing to try to meet the deadline with the best outcome1?
- A. Conduct a quality risk analysis and prioritize the testing based on risk so the highest risk items are tested first
- B. Develop a test automation plan so that automation can be started now
- C. Review the personnel plan and get more resources onto the test team
- D. Continue with the current plan but highlight to the project manager that either the deadline will be missed or the testing will not be done
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Dealing with Tight Schedules:
* Prioritization based on quality risk ensures critical areas are tested, minimizing risks to the project.
* In tight schedules, testing everything is impractical; focus must shift to high-risk areas.
* Evaluation of Options:
* Ais unlikely feasible given the tight schedule.
* Bhighlights the issue but does not propose a solution.
* C(developing automation) is not possible given time constraints.
* Dis correct because risk-based testing ensures the best possible outcome within the constraints.
References and Syllabus Alignment:
* Risk-based testing is a core concept under "Test Process and Risk Management" in ISTQB syllabus (TM-1.3.1, TM-1.3.4).
NEW QUESTION # 76
You are planning the testing for an emergency product update required to correct a serious security issue and to improve system maintainability of a key product in your company's catalogue. It has been estimated that the historical cost to the company for the security issue in this system has been $375,000.
In the last year a total of 10 reported "live' incidents were reported, resulting in a total external failure cost of S110.000 to correct.
The cost of prevention for this project has been estimated as $78,500 and from the development you have learned that the average cost of detection was $1,250 and the average cost of internal failure was $7,450 Which one of the following statements about cost of quality is TRUE? SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. The historical costs of this system will be recovered in 2 years.
- B. Total cost of quality for this application will be $197,200.
- C. Each defect not found by testing will cost $1250.
- D. Each defect found during testing offers a saving of $1300.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits
i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv.
The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
- A. (ii) and (iv)
- B. (ii) and (iii)
- C. (i) and (ii)
- D. (i) and (iv)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which one of the following is NOT a determining factor when considering the optimal time to conduct a document review? SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. Review time is built into the schedule.
- B. Suitably skilled reviewers are available.
- C. Management procedures have been reviewed
- D. The document is in a reviewable state.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 79
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