PSE-SASE Actual Questions - Instant Download 67 Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 21
Which product allows advanced Layer 7 inspection, access control, threat detection and prevention?
- A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B. remote browser isolation
- C. network sandbox
- D. Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which element of Prisma Access enables both mobile users and users at branch networks to access resources in headquarters or a data center?
- A. private clouds
- B. service connections
- C. App-ID
- D. User-ID
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which product continuously monitors each segment from the endpoint to the application and identifies baseline metrics for each application?
- A. CloudBlades
- B. App-ID Cloud Engine (ACE)
- C. WildFire
- D. Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 24
In which step of the Five-Step Methodology of Zero Trust are application access and user access defined?
- A. Step 1: Define the Protect Surface
- B. Step 5: Monitor and Maintain the Network
- C. Step 4: Create the Zero Trust Policy
- D. Step 3: Architect a Zero Trust Network
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which product enables organizations to open unknown files in a sandbox environment and scan them for malware or other threats?
- A. remote browser isolation
- B. network sandbox
- C. SD-WAN
- D. cloud access security broker (CASB)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which elements of Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM) help provide end-to-end visibility of everything in an organization's environment?
- A. data collected from endpoint devices, synthetic monitoring tests, and real-time traffic
- B. alerts, artifacts, and MITRE tactics
- C. integrated threat intelligence management, automated distribution to enforcement points at scale, full ticket mirroring
- D. scanning of all traffic, ports, and protocols
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which statement describes the data loss prevention (DLP) add-on?
- A. It enables data sharing with third-party tools such as security information and event management (SIEM) systems.
- B. It employs automated policy enforcement to allow trusted behavior with a new Device-ID policy construct.
- C. It prevents phishing attacks by controlling the sites to which users can submit valid corporate credentials.
- D. It is a centrally delivered cloud service with unified detection policies that can be embedded in existing control points.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 28
What is a disadvantage of proxy secure access service edge (SASE) when compared to an inline SASE solution?
- A. Proxy solutions require an unprecedented level of interconnectivity.
- B. Exclusive use of web proxies leads to significant blind spots in traffic and an inability to identify applications and threats on non-standard ports or across multiple protocols.
- C. Proxies force policy actions to be treated as business decisions instead of compromises due to technical limitations.
- D. Teams added additional tools to web proxies that promised to solve point problems, resulting in a fragmented and ineffective security architecture.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 29
What is a benefit of a cloud-based secure access service edge (SASE) infrastructure over a Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) product based on a software-defined perimeter (SDP) model?
- A. Users, devices, and apps are identified no matter where they connect from.
- B. Complexity of connecting to a gateway is increased, providing additional protection.
- C. Connection to physical SD-WAN hubs in ther locations provides increased interconnectivity between branch offices.
- D. Virtual private network (VPN) services are used for remote access to the internal data center, but not the cloud.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 30
What is an advantage of next-generation SD-WAN over legacy SD-WAN solutions?
- A. It enables definition of the privileges and responsibilities of administrative users in a network.
- B. It allows configuration to forward logs to external logging destinations, such as syslog servers.
- C. It provides the ability to push common configurations, configuration updates, and software upgrades to all or a subset of the managed appliances.
- D. It steers traffic and defines networking and security policies from an application-centric perspective, rather than a packet-based approach.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 31
What are two benefits of installing hardware fail-to-wire port pairs on Instant-On Network (ION) devices?
(Choose two.)
- A. local area network (LAN) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and DHCP relay functionality
- B. ensures automatic failover when ION devices experience software or network related failure
- C. network controller communication and monitoring
- D. control mode insertion without modification of existing network configuration
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which element of a secure access service edge (SASE)-enabled network uses many points of presence to reduce latency with support of in-country or in-region resources and regulatory requirements?
- A. identity and network location
- B. broad network-edge support
- C. converged WAN edge and network security
- D. cloud-native, cloud-based delivery
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which two prerequisites must an environment meet to onboard Prisma Access mobile users? (Choose two.)
- A. Mobile user subnet and DNS portal name must be configured.
- B. BGP must be configured so that service connection networks can be advertised to the mobile gateways.
- C. Mapping of trust and untrust zones must be configured.
- D. Zoning must be configured to require a user ID for the mobile users trust zone.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which two statements apply to features of aggregate bandwidth allocation in Prisma Access for remote networks? (Choose two.)
- A. Bandwidth that is allocated to a compute location is statically and evenly distributed across remote networks in that location.
- B. Administrator must assign a minimum of 50 MB to any compute location that will support remote networks.
- C. Administrator is not required to allocate all purchased bandwidth to compute locations for the configuration to be valid.
- D. Administrator can allocate up to 120% of the total bandwidth purchased for aggregate locations to support traffic peaks.
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 35
Users connect to a server in the data center for file sharing. The organization wants to decrypt the traffic to this server in order to scan the files being uploaded and downloaded to determine if malware or sensitive data is being moved by users.
Which proxy should be used to decrypt this traffic?
- A. SSL Inbound Proxy
- B. SSH Forward Proxy
- C. SCP Proxy
- D. SSL Forward Proxy
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which product leverages GlobalProtect agents for endpoint visibility and native Prisma SD-WAN integration for remote sites and branches?
- A. CloudBlades:
- B. WildFire
- C. Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM)
- D. Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which three decryption methods are available in a security processing node (SPN)? (Choose three.)
- A. SSL Forward Proxy
- B. SSH Inbound Inspection
- C. SSHv2 Proxy
- D. SSL Inbound Inspection
- E. SSL Outbound Proxy
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 38
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The PSE-SASE exam consists of 60 multiple-choice questions that must be completed within 90 minutes. PSE-SASE exam is available through Pearson VUE, which is a global testing organization that offers online proctoring services. PSE-SASE exam fee is $160 USD, and candidates must achieve a passing score of 70% or higher to obtain the certification.
Palo Alto Networks PSE-SASE certification is designed for professionals who want to demonstrate their expertise in the field of SASE (Secure Access Service Edge). SASE is a relatively new concept in the world of cybersecurity that combines networking and security functions into a cloud-based service. It is becoming increasingly popular among organizations that want to simplify their security architectures and improve their overall security posture. The PSE-SASE certification exam is aimed at individuals who work with Palo Alto Networks' SASE products and want to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in this area.
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