Best Preparations of ISTQB-CTFL Exam 2024 Foundation Level Unlimited 170 Questions
Focus on ISTQB-CTFL All-in-One Exam Guide For Quick Preparation.
NEW QUESTION # 33
A test manager defined the following test levels in her test plan; Component, System and Acceptance.
Which Software Development lifecycle is the Test Manager most likely following?
- A. Prototyping
- B. Waterfall
- C. V-Model
- D. Agile
Answer: C
Explanation:
The test manager is most likely following the V-model for software development. The V-model is a software development model that defines four testing levels that correspond to four development phases: component testing corresponds to component design, integration testing corresponds to architectural design, system testing corresponds to system requirements specification, and acceptance testing corresponds to user requirements specification. The V-model also defines the test planning and test execution activities for each testing level. Agile is a software development model that follows an iterative and incremental approach, where testing is integrated into each iteration and adapts to changing requirements and feedback. Waterfall is a software development model that follows a sequential and linear approach, where testing is performed after the development phase is completed. Prototyping is a softwaredevelopment model that involves creating a simplified version of the software to elicit user feedback and validate requirements before developing the final product. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page
18.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?
- A. A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures.
- B. Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can
- C. Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.
- D. A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool lies in their approaches and scope. A peer review is a manual inspection of the code by peers or colleagues, focusing not only on the technical aspects of the code but also on other elements such as design, compliance with standards, and maintainability. Peer reviews can identify defects, suggest improvements, and ensure that the code adheres to best practices and team standards.
On the other hand, static analysis is an automated process performed by tools designed to analyze the code without executing it. These tools can detect potential issues such as syntax errors, vulnerabilities, and code smells based on predefined rules and patterns. While static analysis is technically focused, it lacks the broader perspective that human reviewers can provide, such as evaluating the code's maintainability or adherence to project-specific standards. Therefore, static analysis targets the code technically, whereas peer review encompasses a wider range of aspects, making option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?
- A. 999.100000
- B. 1000,50000,99999
- C. 999.1000.50000.100000.100001
- D. 999.1000.23232.99999.100000
Answer: C
Explanation:
A correct list of boundary values for the P input should include the minimum and maximum values of the valid range (15 and 350), as well as the values just below and above the boundaries (14 and 351). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option B satisfies this condition, as it has all four boundary values (14, 15, 350, 351). Option A has two values from the same equivalence class (1000 and 99999), option C has two values outside the range (999 and 100000), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 34.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool.
Which of the following is the best option?
- A. Purchase and deploy an incident management tool
- B. Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls
- C. Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet
- D. Document incidents on a large board in the lab
Answer: C
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident management tool is a software tool that supports recording and tracking incidents throughout their life cycle. A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. The best option for this case is to manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet. This option has several advantages over other options:
* It is low cost, as it does not require purchasing any additional software or hardware.
* It is easy to implement within a week, as it does not require installing or configuring any complex software or hardware.
* It is accessible and transparent, as it can be viewed and updated by anyone who has access to the intranet.
* It is structured and organized, as it can store and display various information about incidents, such as identifier, summary, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, etc. The other options are not suitable for this case, as they have several disadvantages over the chosen option:
* Documenting incidents on a large board in the lab is not a good option, as it is not accessible or transparent to anyone who is not physically present in the lab. It is also not structured or organized, as it may not store or display all the necessary information about incidents.
* Purchasing and deploying an incident management tool is not a good option, as it is not low cost or easy to implement within a week. It may require spending a significant amount of money and time on acquiring, installing and configuring the software or hardware.
* Managing the incidents through emails and phone calls is not a good option, as it is not structured or organized. It may lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information about incidents. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page
32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of
- A. It is not a defect
- B. Defect
- C. Failure
- D. Error
Answer: C
Explanation:
A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits. A failure is observable by the software users or other stakeholders. A failure is caused by one or more defects in the software. In this case, the software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of a failure, as it deviates from the stated requirement and affects the user experience. It is not a defect, which is a flaw in the software that causes the failure. It is not an error, which is a human action that produces an incorrect result. It is not a non-defect, as it clearly violates a specified requirement. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 4.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Why should you choose a test technique?
- A. Because of the time constraints that usually accompany a test project
- B. Because this way you cover the full scope of the product's functionality
- C. Because choosing a test technique is a common practice in software testing
- D. Because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test
Answer: D
Explanation:
You should choose a test technique because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test. A test technique is a method or process for deriving and selecting test cases based on some criteria or rules. Different test techniques are suitable for different types of software products, depending on their characteristics, functionalities, requirements, specifications, risks, etc. Choosing a test technique helps to ensure that the test cases are relevant, effective, and efficient for the product under test. The other options are not correct reasons to choose a test technique. Time constraints are not a factor for choosing a test technique, but rather for prioritizing or optimizing testing activities. Covering the full scope of the product's functionality is not a guarantee of choosing a test technique, but rather a goal of testing. Choosing a test technique is not a common practice in software testing, but rather a professional skill and responsibility. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 31.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which or the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15.
- A. Less than 1.1 through 14. more than 15
- B. Less than 0.1 through 14. 15 and more
- C. negative numbers. 1 through 15. above 15
- D. Less than 1.1 through 15. more than 15
Answer: D
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning is a black-box test design technique where inputs to the software or system are divided into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behavior. For an integer field that should accept values from 1 to 15, the valid equivalence class is 1 through 15. The invalid equivalence classes are numbers less than 1 and numbers more than 15. Therefore, option D, "Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15," correctly identifies the valid equivalence class along with the two invalid classes, covering all possible input scenarios for the field. Options A, B, and C either do not accurately capture the valid range or incorrectly specify the range boundaries.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?
- A. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.
- B. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.
- C. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.
- D. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The testing of software does not demonstrate the absence of defects, but rather the presence of defects or the conformance of the software to the specified requirements1. Testing can never prove that the software is defect-free, as it is impossible to test all possible scenarios, inputs, outputs, and behaviors of the software2. Testing can only provide a level of confidence in the quality of the software, based on the coverage, effectiveness, and efficiency of the testing activities3.
The other options are correct because:
A) Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system, as they verify that the system meets the expected quality attributes and satisfies the needs and expectations of the users and clients4. Risk is the potential for loss or harm due to the occurrence of an undesirable event5. Testing can help to identify, analyze, prioritize, and mitigate the risks associated with the software product and project6.
C) Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities, as they provide feedback on the quality of the software and the effectiveness of the development processes7. Defects are flaws or errors in the software that cause it to deviate from the expected or required results or behavior. Testing can help to detect, report, track, and resolve the defects, and prevent them from recurring in the future.
D) Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality, as it can ensure that the requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and aligned with the needs and expectations of the users and clients. Requirements are the specifications of what the software should do and how it should do it. Testing can help to validate that the requirements are met by the software, and verify that the software is implemented according to the requirements.
Reference =
1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 10
2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 11
3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 12
4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 13
5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
7 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 14
[8] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 15
[9] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
[10] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 17
[11] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 18
[12] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 19
NEW QUESTION # 41
The following 4 equivalence classes are given:
Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?
- A. -100; 100:1000; 1001
- B. -500; 0; 100; 1000
- C. -1000; -100; 100; 1000
- D. -99; 99:101; 1001
Answer: C
Explanation:
* The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning.
Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given equivalence classes are:
* (x \leq -100)
* (-100 < x < 100)
* (100 \leq x < 1000)
* (x \geq 1000)
Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:
* For (x \leq -100), it gives -1000.
* For (-100 < x < 100), it gives -100 and 100.
* For (100 \leq x < 1000), it gives 500.
* For (x \geq 1000), it gives 1500.
So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents available at ISTQB and ASTQB.
* 1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38
* 2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39
* : ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40
NEW QUESTION # 42
A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.
Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.
Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement
- A. It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)
- B. It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)
- C. It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)
- D. It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)
Answer: C
Explanation:
A defect is a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function. A defect can cause harm to the end customer, the company, or both, depending on the impact and severity of the failure. In this case, the defect in the code causes the system to lock down accounts that have an overdraft higher than $1000, instead of $10,000. This can cause harm to the end customer, as they may lose access to their funds and face inconvenience or financial difficulties. This can also cause harm to the company, as they may lose customer trust and satisfaction, face legal issues or complaints, or incur additional costs for fixing the defect and restoring the accounts. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 3-4.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following should be included in a test status report?
I Estimation details
II Total number of open and closed defects
III Actual effort spent
IV Defect reports
V Number of executed, failed, blocked tests
- A. II, III
- B. II, III.V
- C. III.V
- D. I. II. IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
The following should be included in a test status report: total number of open and closed defects, actual effort spent, and number of executed, failed, and blocked tests. A test status report is a document that provides information on the results and status of testing activities for a given period or phase. A test status report should include information that is relevant, accurate, and timely for the intended audience and purpose. Some of the information that should be included in a test status report are: total number of open and closed defects, which can indicate the defect trend and defect density of the software product; actual effort spent, which can indicate the productivity and efficiency of the testing process; number of executed, failed, and blocked tests, which can indicate the test progress and test coverage of the software product. The following should not be included in a test status report: estimation details, defect reports, and impact analysis. Estimation details are not part of a test status report, but rather part of a test plan or a test estimation document. Estimation details provide information on the expected time, resources, and costs for testing activities, not on the actual results or status of testing activities. Defect reports are not part of a test status report, but rather separate documents that provide detailed information on individual defects found during testing. Defect reports include information such as defect description, defect severity, defect priority, defect status, defect resolution, etc. Defect reports can be referenced or summarized in a test status report, but not included in full. Impact analysis is not part of a test status report, but rather part of a risk assessment or prioritization process. Impact analysis provides information on the potential effects or consequences of a change or a defect on the software product or project. Impact analysis can be used to evaluate the amount or scope of testing to be performed, but not to report the results or status of testing activities. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 141.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Manager responsibilities in formalreview includes adexceptone of the following:
- A. Planning the review
- B. Decide on the execution of reviews
- C. Determines if the review objectives have been met
- D. Allocate time for review
Answer: C
Explanation:
A formal review is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. A formal review can have various roles involved, such as manager, moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The manager responsibilities in formal review include all except one of the following:
* Planning the review (correct responsibility)
* Determines if the review objectives have been met (incorrect responsibility)
* Decide on the execution of reviews (correct responsibility)
* Allocate time for review (correct responsibility) The responsibility of determining if the review objectives have been met belongs to the moderator role, not to themanager role. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 28-29.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following isNOTan experience-based technique?
- A. Fault attack
- B. Error guessing
- C. Exploratory testing
- D. Boundary value analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Boundary value analysis is not an experience-based technique, but rather a specification-based technique (also known as black-box technique). Experience-based techniques are techniques that rely on the tester's knowledge and intuition to derive and select test cases based on their experience with similar systems, technologies, domains, risks, etc. Some examples of experience-based techniques are error guessing, exploratory testing, fault attack, checklist-based testing, etc. Specification-based techniques are techniques that rely on the tester's analysis and interpretation of the requirements or specifications of the system under test to derive and select test cases based on some criteria or rules. Some examples of specification-based techniques are equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, decision table testing, state transition testing, etc.
Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 31.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?
- A. A test leader writes a test summary report
- B. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release
- C. A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort
- D. A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
* The question is about identifying an example of testing contributing to higher quality. Quality is the degree to which a component, system or process meets specified requirements and/or user/customer needs and expectations1. Testing is the process consisting of all lifecycle activities, both static and dynamic, concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of software products and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects2.
* Therefore, testing contributes to higher quality by verifying and validating that the software products and related work products meet the specified requirements, are fit for purpose and have no defects, or at least have a reduced number of defects. Testing also provides information about the quality of the software products and related work products to the stakeholders, who can make informed decisions based on the test results3.
* Out of the four given statements, only option D is an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it shows that testing has detected a defect (a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function4) and that the defect has been resolved (fixed and confirmed) prior to release (delivery of the software product to the customer or end user).
This means that testing has prevented a potential failure (an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits) from occurring in the operational environment, and thus has improved the quality of the software product.
* Option A is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a reporting activity that summarizes the test results and evaluates the test objectives, but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test summary report is a document that records and communicates the outcomes of testing activities, including test completion criteria, test results, incident reports, test summary and evaluation, and lessons learned.
* Option B is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a planning activity that estimates the resources and time needed for testing activities, but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test effort estimate is an approximation of the amount of work and/or the duration of time required to perform testing activities.
* Option C is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a preparation activity that sets up the test environment (an environment containing hardware, instrumentation, simulators, software tools, and other support elements needed to conduct a test), but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test environment installation is a process of installing and configuring the test environment according to the test environment specification.
References:
* 1: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 10
* 2: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 11
* 3: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 12
* 4: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 77
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 78
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 79
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 80
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 81
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 82
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 83
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 84
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 85
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 86
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 87
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 88
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 89
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 90
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 91
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 92
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 93
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 94
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 95
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 96
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 97
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 98
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 99
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 100
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 101
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 102
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 103
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 104
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 105
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 106
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 107
NEW QUESTION # 47
A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.
Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?
- A. Pesticide Paradox
- B. Absence-of-errors fallacy
- C. Early testing
- D. Defect clustering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Defect clustering is a testing principle that states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected during pre-release testing, or are responsible for most of the operational failures. Defect clustering can be explained by Pareto's principle (also known as the 80-20 rule), which states that approximately 80% of the problems are found in 20% of the modules. Defect clustering suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, as it implies that more effort should be allocated to test the modules that have shown high defect density or criticality. Pesticide paradox is another testing principle that states that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually they will no longer find any new defects. Pesticide paradox suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but not based on defect clustering, but rather on test diversity and coverage. Early testing is a testing principle that states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development life cycle and should be focused on defined objectives. Early testing does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a proactive approach to prevent defects from occurring or propagating. Absence-of-errors fallacy is a testing principle that states that finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users' needs and expectations. Absence-of-errors fallacy does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a focus on quality attributes and user requirements. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 9-10.
NEW QUESTION # 48
The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.
What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?
- A. Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing, Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development
- B. Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development; Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing
- C. Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge
- D. Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,Disadvantage less independence in perspectives
Answer: D
Explanation:
Being part of the support team means that the testers are closer to the customer perspective, which is an advantage for testing, as they can better understand the user needs and expectations, and identify more realistic scenarios and risks. However, being part of the support team also means that they have less independence in deciding what and how to test, as they may be influenced by the customer's preferences or requests, which could compromise the objectivity and effectiveness of testing. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 6.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following statements describes regression testing?
I, Retesting of a fixed defect
II, Testing of an already tested program
III, Testing of new functionality in a program
IV, Regression testing applies only to functional testing
V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once
- A. I, III, IV
- B. I, IV
- C. II, IV, V
- D. II
Answer: D
Explanation:
Regression testing is the re-running of functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change1 It does not involve retesting of a fixed defect, testing of new functionality, or applying only to functional testing. Tests that are used for regression testing should be repeatable, because they are used to verify the stability of the software after each change2 Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2, Page 291; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292
NEW QUESTION # 50
Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.
I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.
II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.
III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk
IV) Risks have to bereassessedon a regular basis.
V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks
- A. II, IIIIVandVarecorrect. I isfalse.
- B. II, Ill and V are true.1antsIv are false.
- C. I III IV and V are true. II is false.
- D. C. I, II and IV are true.IIIand V are false.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The following statements about risk-based testing are correct:
* II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible. Risk-based testing involves prioritizing tests based on risk level, which reflects both the likelihood and impact of defects or failures.
Tests with higher risk level should be executed earlier than tests with lower risk level, in order to find and fix critical defects as soon as possible.
* III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk. Risk-based testing does not only involve testing activities, but also other activities that can help mitigate risks, such as reviews, inspections, audits,
* simulations or prototyping.
NEW QUESTION # 51
......
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