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BEST Verified Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Exam Questions (2025)
Introduction to Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam
Learn the core concepts, best practices, and recommendations for securing an organization on the cloud regardless of the provider or platform. Covering all the 14 domains from the CSA Security Guidance v4, recommendations from ENISA, and the Cloud Controls Matrix, you will come away understanding how to leverage the information from CSA's vendor-neutral research to keep data secure on the cloud.
They need information security experts who are cloud-savvy as companies move to the cloud. The CCSK certificate is generally accepted as the cloud protection standard of expertise and gives you the foundations you need to protect data in the cloud. It is your decision on how you choose to draw on that experience.
The certification has the following objectives. These objectives can be fulfilled by carefully studying the CCSk exam dumps:
- Using the cloud-specific governance & enforcement tool, how to determine the protection of cloud providers and your organization: Cloud Controls Matrix
- Recommendations from the cloud guidelines of the European Union Agency for Network and Information Security (ENISA)
- An in-depth understanding of cloud computing's full capabilities
- Compared to internationally agreed requirements, the knowledge to build a comprehensive cloud protection program effectively
How much Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam Cost
The Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam costs USD 395 which includes two attempts for the candidates. In case of failure, each further attempt will cost USD 395. Candidates may incur other costs during the preparation phase of the exam like purchasing the CCSk exam dumps pdf and then practicing for the exam via the CCSK practice test.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the below hypervisors are 0S based and are more attractive to attackers?
- A. Type I
- B. Type II
- C. Type V
- D. Type III
Answer: B
Explanation:
Type II hypervisors are 0S-based and more attractive to attackers. There are lot of vulnerabilities which are found not only on 0S but also in applications residing on the 0S.
NEW QUESTION # 15
For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?
- A. Service-level agreements between all parties
- B. Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment
- C. Full API access to all required services
- D. Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts
- E. Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?
- A. Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses
- B. Isolating affected systems
- C. Notifying affected parties
- D. Restoring services to normal operations
Answer: A
Explanation:
Documenting lessons learned is essential in the post-incident phase, as it helps improve future incident response processes. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 11 - Incident Response]
NEW QUESTION # 17
Ensuring the use of data and information complies with organizational policies, standards and strategy- including regulatory, contractual, and business objectives, known as:
- A. Enterprise Governance
- B. IT Governance
- C. Data Governance
- D. Corporate Governance
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is definition of Data Governance
NEW QUESTION # 18
CCM: In the CCM tool, a is a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.
- A. Control Specification
- B. Risk Impact
- C. Domain
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 19
How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?
- A. The guest OS can invoke stealth mode
- B. Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces
- C. VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls
- D. VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host
- E. Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 20
What refers refer the model that allows customers to scale their computer and/ or storage needs with little or no intervention from or prior communication with the provider. The services happen in real time?
- A. Rapid elasticity
- B. Resource pooling
- C. On-demand self-service
- D. Broad network access
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is the characteristic of 0n-demand self-service that allows customers to scale their computer and/ or storage needs with little or no intervention from or prior communication with the provider
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following is not one of the categories of risks as defined in, ENISA (European Network and Information Security Agency) document on Security risk and recommendation?
- A. Policy and organisational risk
- B. Technical Risk
- C. Environmental Risk
- D. Legal Risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Environmental Risk are not defined as a category in the ENISA document however. all the other three are defined as categories.
NEW QUESTION # 22
How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?
- A. By granting root access to administrators
- B. By specifying fine-grained permissions
- C. By using default policies for all keys
- D. By rotating keys on a regular basis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fine-grained permissions enable specific control over who can access certain resources, thus enforcing the least privilege principle. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 5 - IAM]
NEW QUESTION # 23
CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?
GRM 06 - Policy GRM 07 - Policy Enforcement GRM 08 - Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 - Policy Reviews GRM 10 - Risk Assessments GRM 11 - Risk Management Framework
- A. Governance and Retention Management
- B. Governance and Risk Management
- C. Governing and Risk Metrics
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 24
According to ISO 27018. data processor has explicit control over how CSPs are to use PII.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
In ISO 27018, it is the customer who has explicit right over how CSPs will use their information
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is also knows as white-box test and can be used to find XSS errors, SQL injection.
buffer overflows. unhandled error conditions. and potential backdoors?
- A. Static Application Security Testing(SAST)
- B. Threat Modelling
- C. Static Application Security Testing(SAST)
- D. Dynamic Application Security Testing(DAST)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Static application security testing(SAST) is generally considered a white-box test, where the application test performs an analysis of the application source code, byte code, and binaries without executing the application code. SAST is used to determine coding errors and omissions that are indicative of security vulnerabilities. SAST is often used as a test method while the tool is under development(early in the development lifecycle).
SAST can be used to find XSS errors, SQL injection, buffer overflows, unhandled error conditions, and potential backdoors.
NEW QUESTION # 26
What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?
- A. You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.
- B. You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.
- C. You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.
- D. You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.
- E. You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 27
A unit of processing, which can be in a virtual machine, a container, or other abstraction and always run somewhere on a processor and consume memory is called:
- A. Device
- B. Workload
- C. Host
- D. Controller
Answer: B
Explanation:
A workload is a unit of processing, which can be in a virtual machine, a container, or other abstraction.
Workloads always run somewhere on a processor and consume memory. Workloads include a very diverse range of processing tasks, which range from traditional applications running in a virtual machine on a standard operating system, to GPU- or FPGA-based specialized tasks Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the authentication is more secured?
- A. Single Sign-on
- B. Biometric Authentication
- C. Password Authentication
- D. Multifactor Authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication is more secured than the rest because it has more than one aspect to authentication Multifactor authentication is composed of, at a minimum, two of the following aspects- something you know, something you are, or something you have. Something you know can be a password, passphrase, and so on. Something you have can be something like a number-generating transmit a number or fob, a smartphone capable of receiving text messages, or even a phone that can receive a call and then to the individual but that is only accessible from a very specific phone number.
Something you are is a biometric trait of yourself, as a living creature. This could be as unique and specific as your DNA fingerprint, or as cursorily general as a photograph.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is not an abuse or misuse of cloud services?
- A. Launching DDoS Attacks
- B. Phishing campaigns
- C. Email Spam
- D. Data Deletion
Answer: D
Explanation:
Please note here and understand the meaning of phrase "abuse or misuse of cloud Services". This phrase means to launch attacks or campaign by using cloud as a platform, mostly, public cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Who is responsible for infrastructure security in Infrastructure as a service(IaaS) model?
- A. Shared responsibility between cloud service provider and cloud service customer
- B. Cloud Service Architect
- C. Cloud Service provider
- D. Cloud Service User
Answer: A
Explanation:
Infrastructure security is shared responsibility between cloud service provider and cloud customer.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Cloud Service Provider and Cloud Customer are jointly responsible for ownership of the all risks in shared responsibility model for security across all service models.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is false. This is again a tricky question and one should be careful when answering this type of question. It is the cloud customer is who is ultimately responsible for the ownership of risk in the cloud environment. Consumer just passes some of risk management responsibilities to the cloud service provider.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Applistructure
- C. Hypervisor
- D. Metastructure
- E. Orchestration
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is correct about Due Care & Due Diligence?
- A. Due care is technical control whereas Due Deligence is physical control.
- B. None of the above definitions are correct.
- C. Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.
- D. Due care is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due Diligence is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Definitions:
Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces.
Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company, its assets, and its people from threats
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is the key difference between cloud computing and traditional virtualization?
- A. Classification
- B. Isolation
- C. Abstraction
- D. Orchestration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Orchestration is the difference between cloud computing and traditional virtualization; virtualization abstracts resources. but it typically lacks the orchestration to pool them together and deliver them to customers on demand. instead relying on manual processes.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0
NEW QUESTION # 35
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